Can anybody help me to understand this? This is why they think that’s it’s not a primary pathogen:
“However, selective elimination of this pathogen using the antibiotic metronidazole failed to arrest disease lesion progression in controlled experiments, indicating that the Philaster ciliate is unlikely to be a primary pathogen of WBD.”
How would this make it unlikely? Not sure I understand.
They killed the Philaster with Metro (like so many other people/studies have said) and the tissue necrosis still happened with no Philaster in the equation. This could mean a lot of things, but they are saying that it is unlikely that the Philaster did not pull the trigger in your "smoking gun" theory and was just there to clean up afterward and was holding the gun when the cops showed up.... and that if the Philaster did not show up on the scene, the coral is still dead and the smoking guy is just lying on the floor. It could mean that Philaster is one of many things that cause WBD. What it means, FOR SURE, is that eliminating Philaster with Metro, or some other herbal remedy, will not stop tissue necrosis.
This should be easy to see. I am with @MnFish1 on this one... there seems to be a secondary agenda here. Even the reefers who see the pile of bristleworms cleaning up their dead clam are easier to convince that they did not kill it.
To anybody who is reading this, confused or wants to try to eliminate Philaster, just get some Metronidazole. It appears from many sources that it is deadly to Philaster - the only person who said that it does not is selling you a different product. Maybe it will work, maybe it wont, but it is safe and cheap to try.